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Post by rusalka on Jan 22, 2013 15:51:04 GMT
Sorry ladies for having so many questions, I hope I'm not too annoying .... Few times I read that the correlation between the Progesterone and Estrogen should be 100:1 Is this correct? If I understand this right: if you have estrogen levels about 100 pg/ml, then the progesterone levels should be 10 ng/ml ? So, if I have P level about 1, I'm estrogen dominant? If this theory is correct- which P levels are relevant- those ones after the ovulation, which are much higher then at the beginning of the cycle? And when we are on HRT, which P levels we should aspire? My gyno said P levels are not relevant at all, P it's only important to protect the lining, but other gynos say that P is specially important by symptoms of anxiety, low libido, depression... It's so confusing, I mean, so many different opinions...
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Post by menomale on Mar 7, 2020 17:10:48 GMT
Progesterone levels are, on average:
-men, postmenopausal women, and women at the beginning of their menstrual cycle: 1 ng/mL or under -women in the middle of their menstrual cycle: 5 to 20 ng/mL
Not sure where 10 ng/mL came from?
As for estradiol, the levels also fluctuate. According to Mayo Medical Laboratories, normal levels of estradiol (E2) for menstruating women range from 15 to 350 picograms per milliliter (pg/mL). For postmenopausal women, normal levels should be lower than 10 pg/mL.
So, why would 100 pg/mL would be considered 'optimal'?
If postmenopausal women have on average < 1 ng/mL (1,000 pg/mL) of progesterone and < 10 pg/mL, then the proportion is 100:1, but the absolute levels depend on clinical symptoms in menopause, there are no absolute 'right' or optimal levels for everyone.
Moreover, personal optimal levels might vary on specific sites: blood, brain, breasts, endometrium, scalp, etc, depending on genetic variability and other environmental (internal and external) factors.
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